[ipv6hackers] Question: connect to IPv6 site via proxy using literal IPv6 address?

[Schmoll, Carsten]

Dear IPv6 experts,

what is your experience with a situation such as this:


* IPv4-only client in IPv4-only subnet running a web browser

* This client accesses the Internet via a local HTTP proxy, connects to it via IPv4 (of course)

* The Proxy is dual-stack "on the outside", i.e. can talk v4 and v6 towards the Internet

What happens if the user on the client tries to open a web site with a literal IPv6 address in the URI?
Will the URI still get passed to the http proxy "as is" as it would happen with URIs that contain a host name?
Or can/will the client's browser get into trouble in this situation (seeing an IPv6 address, but not having IPv6 itself)?

Thanks for enlightenment
Carsten

[Marc Heuse]

Passed as-is and IPv4 client can surf the IPv6 net without problems

Post by Schmoll, Carsten
Dear IPv6 experts,
* IPv4-only client in IPv4-only subnet running a web browser
* This client accesses the Internet via a local HTTP proxy, connects to it via IPv4 (of course)
* The Proxy is dual-stack "on the outside", i.e. can talk v4 and v6 towards the Internet
What happens if the user on the client tries to open a web site with a literal IPv6 address in the URI?
Will the URI still get passed to the http proxy "as is" as it would happen with URIs that contain a host name?
Or can/will the client's browser get into trouble in this situation (seeing an IPv6 address, but not having IPv6 itself)?
Thanks for enlightenment
Carsten
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